Vandals – A Slavic Tribe or not?

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7 Responses

  1. Blaž Babič says:

    calgacus.co.uk/articles/17/remember-the-amber—case-euro

  2. Blaž Babič says:

    Remember the Amber – Case Europe (OMG Phase) ….at Calgacus

  3. P j nebergall says:

    I’m uncertain of these conclusions. So much of “ethnic” identity is really cultural. Bearers of a particular culture may be genetically mixes but culturally specific. Would you use a similar analysis on Arab people? On native Americans? I think the one does not well link to the other.

  4. Gordon Gray III says:

    These conclusions are quite a jump, not to mention the author’s mistake at calling Lombards Goths. It would probably be better to compare them in a study with the Visigoths(a group to which we know where are some grave sights)The Vandals, Goths, Gepids, and Burgundians are called east germanics for a reason, their group contains very few that mingled with the proto-slavic populations during their migrations east and then westward again. So it is unsurprising that they’d contain dna from the populations that would later become slavic.

  5. Gordon Gray III says:

    However your utilization of the Vandal sites in Sardinia is brilliant and any germanic graves are indeed likely to be Vandal since we know they did settle on that island during the Vandal Empire phase. However genetic markers aren’t entirely unique to ethnic groups and can exist in large portion prior to a group’s arrival, a prime example of this is the ‘Celtic Fringe’ we know genetically it has remained relatively unchanged since the early bronze age and predates the Celts by a long shot, implying heavily that the genetic footprint of Ireland and the Basque is pre-celtic and that R1b isn’t Celtic but likely from a pre-indo-european migration during the bronze age collapse. What I’m saying is a population’s genetic marker and that population’s culture are not necessarily tied together.

    • niklot says:

      yep, I do agree with the last sentence, assimilation has happened many times in history. It could easily happen that ancestors of Vandalic elites subjugated people that were descendants of Lusatian culture(who happened to be proto-Slavic) which would explain why Vandalic DNA markers show a high concentration of R1a and I2a.

      That assimilation could happen before Slavs and Goths were “created” or after it, it is impossible to prove. One thing is certain, the culture of Vandals does not show correspondencies with Slavic culture

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